The computation of the sum of Dobiński's series can be reduced to a finite sum of n+o terms, taking into account the information that is an integer. Precisely one has, for any integer K > 1 provided . Indeed, one has for all j ≥ 0 so that the tail is dominated by the series, which implies, whence the reduced formula.
Generalization
Dobiński's formula can be seen as a particular case, for, of the more general relation:
Proof
One proof relies on a formula for the generating function for Bell numbers, The power series for the exponential gives so The coefficient of in this power series must be, so Another style of proof was given by Rota. Recall that if x and n are nonnegative integers then the number of one-to-one functions that map a size-n set into a size-x set is the falling factorial Let ƒ be any function from a size-n set A into a size-x set B. For any b ∈ B, letƒ −1 =. Then is a partition of A. Rota calls this partition the "kernel" of the function ƒ. Any function from A into Bfactors into
one function that maps a member of A to the element of the kernel to which it belongs, and
another function, which is necessarily one-to-one, that maps the kernel into B.
The first of these two factors is completelydetermined by the partition that is the kernel. The number of one-to-one functions from into B is ||, where || is the number of parts in the partition. Thus the total number of functions from a size-n set A into a size-x set B is the index running through the set of all partitions of A. On the other hand, the number of functions from A into B is clearly xn. Therefore, we have Rota continues the proof using linear algebra, but it is enlightening to introduce a Poisson-distributedrandom variableX with mean 1. The equation above implies that the nth moment of this random variable is where E stands for expected value. But we shall show that all the quantities E equal 1. It follows that and this is just the number of partitions of the set A. The quantity E is called the kth factorial moment of the random variable X. To show that this equals 1 for all k when X is a Poisson-distributed random variable with mean 1, recall that this random variable assumes each value integer value with probability. Thus